NCLEX: A 68-year-old client on a medical-surgical unit is being evaluated for subcutaneous insulin therapy. The nurse re…

Pharmacology Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies

Case Study

A 68-year-old client on a medical-surgical unit is being evaluated for subcutaneous insulin therapy. The nurse reviews this trend: INR increased from 2.1 to 4.8 while the client reports black stools. Which interpretation and action are most appropriate?

Question

A. Ignore the trend because one data point can be explained later.
B. Interpret the trend in context, compare it with baseline or benchmarks, and take the safest indicated action.
C. Treat a single value without comparing it with baseline, symptoms, or benchmarks.
D. Wait for a critical value or sentinel event before taking any nursing action.

Rationale

Correct answer: B. Interpret the trend in context, compare it with baseline or benchmarks, and take the safest indicated action.

Rationale: Trend questions require comparison with baseline, symptoms, risk, and benchmarks. Safe nursing action begins before a preventable event becomes critical.

Hint: Apply ABCs, client stability, and NCSBN clinical judgment steps before choosing an intervention.

Level: Clinical

Difficulty: Medium

Subtopic: Insulin and antidiabetics