NCLEX: A 68-year-old client on a medical-surgical unit is being evaluated for opioid analgesia after surgery. The nurse…

Pharmacology Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies

Case Study

A 68-year-old client on a medical-surgical unit is being evaluated for opioid analgesia after surgery. The nurse reviews this trend: blood glucose values are 58, 54, and 49 mg/dL over 2 hours after insulin. Which interpretation and action are most appropriate?

Question

A. Ignore the trend because one data point can be explained later.
B. Treat a single value without comparing it with baseline, symptoms, or benchmarks.
C. Interpret the trend in context, compare it with baseline or benchmarks, and take the safest indicated action.
D. Wait for a critical value or sentinel event before taking any nursing action.

Rationale

Correct answer: C. Interpret the trend in context, compare it with baseline or benchmarks, and take the safest indicated action.

Rationale: Trend questions require comparison with baseline, symptoms, risk, and benchmarks. Safe nursing action begins before a preventable event becomes critical.

Hint: Apply ABCs, client stability, and NCSBN clinical judgment steps before choosing an intervention.

Level: Clinical

Difficulty: Medium

Subtopic: Opioids and pain medications